TeX - LaTeX Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for users of TeX, LaTeX, ConTeXt, and related typesetting systems. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

I've started exploring XeTeX and the unicode-math package in order to use unicode in my input.

Of the six math fonts described in unimath-symbols.pdf, Latin Modern Math seems to be closest to what pdflatex produces. However, I've already noticed a number of differences I don't like, such as \varnothing (which is the same as \emptyset now), \complement and the \mathbb family.

I know about the range option of the \setmathfont command. Right now I use:


But I'd rather use a single command, option or package that takes all symbols as close as possible to the `pdflatex versions'. I can then explore the different fonts at my leisure, with the certainty that there are no big surprises in my existing documents.

Is there a way to do this?

share|improve this question

closed as too broad by egreg, Joseph Wright Jan 2 at 21:30

There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format. Please add details to narrow the answer set or to isolate an issue that can be answered in a few paragraphs.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

The appearance of symbols is decided by the font designer. – egreg Jul 23 '13 at 17:35
With the traditional setup, \varnothing and \complement are taken from the AMS symbol font; the designers of Latin Modern Math had different ideas about those symbols. – egreg Jul 23 '13 at 17:47
This question appears to be off-topic because no reasonable answer can be provided. – yo' Sep 6 '14 at 21:32
@tohecz: I'm sorry, but is there any way in which this is not silly? [1] The question is obviously about LaTeX and follows the rules, so: on topic. [2] A reasonable answer to "Is there a way to do this?" might be "No.". [3] How does the inability to answer a question make that question off-topic anyway? --- I can understand the impulse to close what appears to be a dead-end question, but please find a better justification. – mhelvens Sep 7 '14 at 21:12
@tohecz: Why is "No." not a legitimate answer here? Anyway, I asked the question to solve a real problem I faced at the time, and it literally follows all the rules listed in the 'Asking' section of the help center (I checked). It is not subjective. Moreover, it addresses an issue that people may yet face in the future. If you are hung up on the word "answerable" in the 'what to avoid asking' section, I find that a bit weak. The most you could say is that this question does not have an answer yet. – mhelvens Sep 7 '14 at 21:31