# The punctuation signs; comma and dot, below footnote indicator is beautiful in the context of typographic styles?

The norm say: When there are punctuation marks (e.g. a comma, colon or period) at the point where the footnote indicator should be inserted, the indicator is placed after the punctuation in English but before the punctuation in French and Spanish.

But, consider the following code:

\documentclass{article}

\newsavebox\superscriptbox
\newsavebox\commabox

\sbox{\superscriptbox}{\textsuperscript{12}}
\sbox{\commabox}{,}

\begin{document}

The English norm: Hello,\textsuperscript{12} bye \newline

The Spanish and French norm: Hello\textsuperscript{12}, bye \newline

The \TeX\ power: Hello,\kern-\wd\commabox\textsuperscript{12} bye. %
Hello\textsuperscript{12}\kern-\wd\superscriptbox,\kern\wd\superscriptbox bye

\end{document}


Output:

The last line of the output, is more or less beautiful than the norm?

Edit: How can I modify the footnote command for implement the "overlapped" version (only for comma and dot), but automatically?

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i suppose it depends on what one is used to. i find the spanish/french form disconcerting -- and wonder if even more space is added before the comma in french? i do like the "overlapped" version, but don't think it would work if the punctuation were a colon or semicolon, unless the index were raised. that leaves a question -- what to do if the punctuation is a question mark or exclamation point? in other words, this opens a can of worms. –  barbara beeton Oct 8 '13 at 14:19
Please, where does this norm comes from? The only norm I know is that a footnote is placed behind an word, if the footnote explains the word and after . or ! or ? if it explains the complete sentence. Found in several typographic rules books ... –  Kurt Oct 8 '13 at 14:30
–  cgnieder Oct 8 '13 at 14:40
The question »The last line of the output, is more or less beautiful than the norm?« is of course highly subjective and I doubt it can be answered in our Q&A form. As for »How can I modify the footnote command...«. this is already answered in the question I linked to. –  cgnieder Oct 8 '13 at 18:07
–  Jubobs Oct 8 '13 at 18:39
show 4 more comments

Just stick to the norm that applies.

It is irrelevant if one prefers one way more than the other. Provided that one knows the norm of the language in which the text is to be written, one must just follow it.

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But isn't the “TeX power” to write packages and macros in order to obtain the output you want? TeX itself doesn't even have a \footnote command: it is build using the math superscripts. –  cgnieder Nov 15 '13 at 14:23